Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 06:55
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If women aren't shallow, why do most tall, good-looking men have girlfriends?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Is there a possibility that we are living in a simulation and that there is a concept of rebirth?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Samsung Nears Wide-Ranging Deal With Perplexity for AI Features - Bloomberg.com
There's no rule.